Q586[sc name=”block-before-question”]Free 1847 USMLE QuestionsPage 1 of 1 Loading...1. A 43-year-old man presents complaining of pain in the groin. On examination, his physician palpates a bulge in the region of the superficial inguinal ring, which he diagnoses as a direct inguinal hernia. The hernial sac most likelyA. is covered by all three layers of the spermatic fasciaB. passes medial to the inferior epigastric arteryC. passes medial to the lateral border of the rectus abdominis muscleD. passes posterior to the inguinal ligamentE. passes through the deep inguinal ringF.direct inguinal hernias pass through the deep inguinal ring (choice E); direct inguinal hernias do not. Both types of inguinal hernias pass through the superficial inguinal ring.G.e lateral border of the rectus abdominis muscle (choice C) forms the medial border of the inguinal triangle. All inguinal hernias pass lateral to the rectus abdominis.H.moral hernias pass posterior to the inguinal ligament (choice D). Inguinal hernias emerge through the superficial inguinal ring, which is superior to the inguinal ligament. Inguinal hernias that descend below the inguinal ligament pass anterior to the ligament. Loading...<<1>> By Medical Tactics|2021-04-24T21:05:48+00:00April 28, 2021|Question Banks|0 CommentsShare This Story, Choose Your Platform!FacebookTwitterRedditLinkedInWhatsAppTelegramTumblrPinterestVkXingEmail About the Author: Medical Tactics Related PostsPharmacology Questions Bank 1.0 Pharmacology Questions Bank 1.0 USMLE QUESTIONS BANK 2.0 USMLE QUESTIONS BANK 2.0 Easy Biology MCQs Gallery Easy Biology MCQs Easy Medical MCQs Gallery Easy Medical MCQs Leave A Comment Cancel replyComment Save my name, email, and website in this browser for the next time I comment. Hover or click the text box below or Type/Enter: med2020
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